ANIMAL TISSUES

We learnt about the distinctive features of an animal cell in the previous section. Now, we shall discuss about the tissues, organs, and organ systems, their structure and function.

   Tissues are broadly classified into four major types which show division of labour in multicellular organisms.

EPITHELIAL TISSUES

Epithelial tissues form sheet of cells that either covers the external surface or lines the internal structure. It can be further subdivided into

     (i)   Simple,  which is one-layer thick e.g; epidermis of skin

     (ii)  Stratified, which have two or more layers e.g., esophagus lining, and

     (iii)  Ciliated e.g., lung alveoli

     (iv)  Pseudpstratifed contains only a single layer of cells, but it appears to have multiple layers because the cell nuclei lie at different levels and not all cells reach the apical surface, e.g., upper respiratory tract.

Simple and stratified epithelial tissues are also classified o the basis of shape into following types:

ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE

We salute the spirit of inquisitiveness of man, which gave birth to the discipline of science. The same spirit of questioning also led man to often wonder how life or the first organism cane into existence. This quest led him to find answers to how, when and where life originated.

                        

                       For centuries, it was believed that life originated de movo. In addition several other scientific and non-scientific theories were also put forward. Some of them are

Theory of special creation:  (or Biblical theory)- It was forward by Father Suarez, a Spanish Monk

.

Theory of spontaneous generation (or Abiogenesis): (Gr, ‘a’ – absence, “bios” –life, genesis” – origin) or origin from nonliving matter.

Theory of Panspermia or Cosmozonic Theory:  According to this theory , life came from some other planet

Biogenesis: Francesco Redi and Louis Pastur laid the foundation for the Theory of Biogenesis, which propounded that living organisms arise from pre-existing ones and not from non –living matter.

Chemosynthetic Theory or Chemogeny: This theory proposes that first form of life originated from inorganic chemical elements by formative action of some external physical force viz. lightening or cosmic rays, etc. It was put forward by A.I. Oparin and J.B.S. Haldane and the experimental evidence was provided by Stanley Millar & Harold Urey. For example, Mighi meteorite in Ukraine and analysis of another meteorite content viz Murchisin, Victoria in Australia by space biologists also revealed similar composition indicating that similar processes are still occurring elsewhere in space. However, in this case, although the presence of amino acids and polynucleotide are similar to DNA, these are of chemical origin and therefore have identical strands instead of complementary strands.

General Science Q & A part - 11

101. Consider the following statements about Red list of IUCN:

1. It is world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.

2. It is reviewed every year.

3.  It is assesses the risk of extinction to species.

4. it’s headquarter is located in United States of America.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

      (a)    1 and 2 only    (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only

102. Consider the following birds.

1. Greater Adjutant Storks

2. Osprey

3. Cattle Egret

4. Siberian Crane

Which of the above given birds are long distance migratory birds? 
(a)    1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only  (d) 3 and 4 only

103. Which of the following statements about ‘Noori’ is correct?

(a) It is the name of Indian movie.

(b)  It is the name of an endangered species of sheep.

(c) It is an extinct species of Kashmiri stag.

(d) It is world’s first cloned Pashmina goat.

104. Consider the names of the following scientists; who among them is known as the “Birdman of India?

(a) Dr. Hargobind Khorana

(b) Dr. Salim ali

(c) Dr. Devi Setty

(d)Dr. J.C. Bose

105. Which of the following is/are “clean and green Fuel”?

1. Petrol 2. Diesel 3. CNG 4. Bio-fuel

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 
(a)    1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

106. Tal Chhapar sanctuary in Churu district of Rajasthan is all set to become a National park. Which of the following conditions/s need to be fulfilled for this upgradation?

1. Increasing the size of sanctuary to provide more space and long term conservation to black bucks and wide variety of resident and migratory birds

2. Acquiring human habitation

3. Restricted use of roads

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 
(a)    1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

107.  “Green Economy” is the main theme of “World Environment Day”. This economy includes

1. Reduce CO₂ emission

2. Adopt 3R’s

3. Plant more trees

4. Conserve energy

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 
(a)    1, and 2 only  (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 3 and 4

108. The elements in life support system are

1. Interrelated

2. Interdependent

3. Interconnected

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

      (a)    1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c)All   (d) 1 and 3 only

109. Biomass gasification is considered to be one the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is /are correct?

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used biomass gasification.

2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.

3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a)    1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

ANSWERS : 

101. (b) 102.(c) 103.(d) 104.(b) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (d) 109 .(c)

General Science Q & A part - 10

91. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.

2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.

3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.

4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

            (a)    1, 2 and 3 only             (b) 2 only         (c) 1 and 3 only                  (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

92. Consider the following statements about ‘Green-Bridge’ technology used to clean the polluted lakes:

1. It uses filtration and purification power of fibrous materials like coconut coir or dried water hyacinth to form the bridge.

2. Energy  sources are sun and air.

93. It is an expensive technique.

4. It has recently been used to salvage the famed Udaisagar Lake inUdaipur.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

            (a)    1 and 2 only   (b) 1, 2 and 3 only    (c) 1, 2 and 3 only      (d) All of the above

94. Consider the following statements about Siberian Crane:

1. It is a migratory bird.

2. It visits Keoladeo National Park, in Rajasthan, in winters.

3. It is a white –eyed bird with a scarlet face.

4. It is facing local extinction.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

       (a)    1 only  (b) 1 and 2 only  (c) 1, 2 and 3 only   (d) All of the above

95. Which of the following birds is/are facing extinction?

1. Red-wattled Lapwing

2. Indian Vulture

3. Little Cormorant

4. Pale-crested Cuckoo

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

            (a)    1 only  (b) 2 only  (c) 2 and 3 only  (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

96. Consider the following statements about the Corbett National Park.

1. It is India’s oldest National Park.

2. It is located in Rajasthan

3. It is the biggest haven for tigers.

4. It is also famous for wild elephants, birds, butterflies and gharials.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

      (a)    1 and 2 only  (b) 1, 2 and 3 only  (c) 1, 3 and 4 only  (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

97. Which of the following techniques is/are deployed for tiger census in India?

1. E-Eye (Electronic –Eye)

2. Seat (faecal matter) analysis

3. Pug- marks

4. Radio collar/ GPS collar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

       (a)    1 and 2 only  (b) 2 and 3 only   (c) 1 and 4 only  (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

98. Consider the following statements about the Iconic Great Barrier Reef.

1. It is located in Queensland State of Australia

2. It is world’s largest reserve of corals.

3. UNESCO has listed it as an endangered site.

4. It is under threat’ from industrial development.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

        (a)    1 only   (b) 1 and 2 only   (c) 1 and 3 only    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

99. The  Indian Eastern Coastal State of Odisha  was recently in news for

1. Launching of Agni-V

2. Traumatic tsunami

3. Olive ridley turtles

4. Infant mortality due to malnutrition

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

       (a)    1, 2 and 3 only   (b) 1 and 3 only  (c) 1, 3 and 4 only  (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

100. Consider the following characteristic features of Protected Area (PA).

1. It is a clearly defined geographical space dedicated and managed to achieve long-term conservation of nature.

2. It includes government reserved forests.

3. It comprises wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks.

4. In these areas human occupation and exploitation of resources is limited.

Which of the above given statements is /are correct?

      (a)    1 and 2 only   (b) 1 and 3 only  (c) 1, 3 and 4 only   (d) All of the above

    answers

a

91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (d) 99. (b) 100.(c)

General Science Q & A part - 9

81.  What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiry?

(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru  is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold highmountains.

(b) Oryx  is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk.

(c) Oryx exists in north-east India only.

(d)None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.

82.  Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of geographical area?

1. Global warming

2. Fragmentation of alien species

3. Invasion of alien species

4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

      (a)    1, 2 and 3 only      (b) 2 and 3 only

(c)2 and 4 only             (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

83. Consider the following:

1. Black-necked crane

2. cheetah

3. flying squirrel

4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

      (a)    1, 2 and 3 only     (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only          (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

84.  What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.

2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.

3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

      (a)    1 and 2 only                 (b)2 only

(c) 3 only                           (d) 1, 2 and 3

85. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian country side some years ago are rarely seen now –a-days. This sis attributed to

(a) the destruction of their nesting  sites by new invasive species

(b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle.

(c) Scarcity of food available to them

(d) A widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them.

86. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?

1. NBA  checks biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.

2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific, research on genetic modification of crop plants.

3. Application for Intellectual Property rights related to genetic/biological resources canot be made without the approval of NBA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

       (a)    1 only                 ( b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only        (d) 1, 2 and 3

87. The National Green Tribunal act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the constitution of India?

1. Right to Healthy environment, construed as a part of right to Life under Article 21.

2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under article 275 (1).

3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243 (A0.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

       (a)    1 only                (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only        (d) 1, 2 and 3  

88. Consider the following kinds of organisms

1. Bacteria      2 fungi

3. Flowering Plants

 Selected species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

(a) 1 only               (b) 2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only      (d) 1, 2 and 3

89. The government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn ‘. What is the importance of this plant?

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.

2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.

3. It has nutritional value and is well –adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.

4. Its timber is of great commercial value

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

              (a)    1 only              (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only      (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

90. Consider the following crops of India:

1. Cowpea                           2. Green grain

3. Pigeon pea

Which of the above is /are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

            (a)    1 and 2 only              (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only              (d) 1, 2 and 3

answers : 81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (d)

General Science Q & A part - 8

71. Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Cartagena protocol on biosafety?

(a) Ministry of Science and Technology 

(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

(c)Ministry of Environment and Forests        

(d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilsers

72. The three Rs denote:

(a) Reduce, Regenerate, Recycle

(b) Recycle, Regenerate, Reuse

(c) Reduce, Recycle, Reuse

(d) Reduce, Regenerate, Reuse.

73.  A predator and prey population

1. Always coexist at relatively stable levels.

2. May undergo cyclic or irregular changes in density

3. Cannot coexist indefinitely in the same habitat.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

     (a)    1 only    (b) 2 only  (c) 1 and 2 only     (d) 1 and 3 only

74. consider the following features of parasites. They

1. Tend to kill their hosts.

2. Feed on host tissues.

3. Can kill novel host.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only      (b) 2 only  (c) 1 and 3 only      (d) 2 and 3 only

 75.The biodiversity of a given region is an outcome of

1. Climate and topography

2. Possibilities for dispersal

3. Evolutionary history

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

     (a)    1 only   (b) 2 and 3 only    (c) 1 and 3 only   (d) 1, 2 and 3

General Science Q & A part - 7

61. The 2004 Tsunami made people realise that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as safety hedge?

(a)  The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out.

(b)  The mangrove provides both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster.

(c) the mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami.

(d)The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots.

62. The “Red Data Book” published by International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.

2. Threatened plant and animal species.

3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

      (a)    1 and 3      (b) 2 only  (c)2 and 3       (d) 3 only

General Science Q & A Answers Download

1.       (a) 2.       (a) 3.       (d) 4.       (b) 5.       (b) 6.       (d) 7.       (b) 8.       (b) 9.       (a) 10.   (b)

11.   (d) 12.   (c) 13.   (d) 14.   (b) 15.   (b) 16.   (d) 17.   (a) 18.   (b) 19.   (d) 20.   (a)

21.   (d) 22.   (b) 23.   (b) 24.   (a) 25.   (b) 26.   (c) 27.   (d) 28.   (d) 29.   (c) 30.   (d)

31.   (c) 32.   (d) 33.   (c) 34.   (b) 35.   (b) 36.   (d) 37.   (d) 38.   (c) 39.   (d) 40.   (b)

41.   (c) 42.   (b) 43.   (a) 44.   (c) 45.   (d) 46.   (d) 47.   (d) 48.   (a) 49.   (c) 50.   (b)

51.   (b) 52.   (c) 53.   (b) 54.   (a) 55.   (a) 56.   (d) 57.   (b) 58.   (d) 59.   (b) 60.   (d)

61.   (d) 62.   (b) 63.   (d) 64.   (c) 65.   (d) 66.   (d) 67.   (d) 68.   (d) 69.   (c) 70.   (c)

71.   (c) 72.   (c) 73.   (b) 74.   (d) 75.   (d) 76.   (b) 77.   (b) 78.   (d) 79.   (a) 80.   (d)

81.   (a) 82.   (a) 83.   (b) 84.   (a) 85.   (b) 86.   (d) 87.   (a) 88.   (d) 89.   (c) 90.   (d)

91.   (a) 92.   (c) 93.   (c) 94.   (d) 95.   (b) 96.   (c) 97.   (d) 98.   (d) 99.   (b) 100.(c)

101. (b) 102.(c) 103.(d) 104.(b) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (d)        109 .(c)